paolo carrion

Hello, recently i ran into a sort of weird structure, it was:

• the chances of me making money are high

The first time i beheld it, i guessed it was not right, was it ?

This is not related to the class but i ran into this word many time and i could not find a proper tranlation.

So... other than the subjuntive use cases that were showed, the other cases in which that grammar structure is used in spanish, will not be used in english, will them?

For example the another comment i did ⬇️

If i had a sentence like:

• in the event that she attends the party i would be happy.

which is translated as:

• en caso de que ella venga a la fiesta, yo estaría feliz

is the way i use the subjunctive correct ? or i am to say:

in the event that she attend the party i would be happy.

Hi, i guess i understood the class, we use this kind of questions to confirmate something. The translations the teacher used is not clear to me though.

For instance:

• Didn't you see Ann yesterdat ?

was translated as:

• ¿No viste a Ann ayer?

But i guess it would be better to say: ¿No que viste a Ann ayer?

Confirm me if what i am saying is correct.

This class was awesome, i'd like to know something else though.

The teacher mentioned that we may use shall i? or shall we? in order to ask for permision. Still, in many movies i heard people saying things like: shall i do it ? or shall we make it ?

And when i translated them into spanish they were: ¿Lo hago? and ¿Lo hacemos?.

Are those tranlations correct gramatically speaking ?

After this class, i kept thinking and i concluded i only need to leanrn verbs which are followed by gerunds, that way, i can tell i pretty much know verbs followed by infinitives. Because they are the rest of verbs, rigth?

When it comes to performing the writting part of an IELTS exam and wanting to get good grades, should i use phrasal verbs or its formal normal version?

The verbs that end with -ing may be transleted as para...(verbo), for instance:

"A swimming pool" = "Una piscina para nadar"

Therefore they are purspose adjectives and must be the last verbs mentioned according to the adjectives order, right?

Another question: Is it correct to say "they are purspose adjectives and must be the last verbs mentioned according to the adjectives order", or should i have said "they are purspose adjectives and they must be the last verbs mentioned according to the adjectives order".

• I want neither to aid nor to speak.

or

• I neither want to aid nor to speak